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Ok guys, I got a serious question about the American politics here.
It's about the fact that even if one party would get 49,9% of all the votes in a state, the party with more votes will be given 100% of the votes after counting...(in the case of just 2 parties, otherwise the parties would have a bit less %'s but still the same principle).
Ok so let's say now that party A gets 100% of all the votes in 24 states and just 49,9% of all the votes in the remaining 26 states. Resulting in a win in 26 states for party B. This would result in party B winning right?
So wouldn't this make the entire system totally unfair? I know that this is practically almost impossible, but still there is a small chance...
It's about the fact that even if one party would get 49,9% of all the votes in a state, the party with more votes will be given 100% of the votes after counting...(in the case of just 2 parties, otherwise the parties would have a bit less %'s but still the same principle).
Ok so let's say now that party A gets 100% of all the votes in 24 states and just 49,9% of all the votes in the remaining 26 states. Resulting in a win in 26 states for party B. This would result in party B winning right?
So wouldn't this make the entire system totally unfair? I know that this is practically almost impossible, but still there is a small chance...