>>2How exactly is it unprovable? Because it is based on empirical evidence? Why couldn't they define the "axiom of choice" in a little more abstract manner. Something more like this...
You can only make a rational judgements after making initial judgements based on experience with which to reason with.
If this is case, then people who run around screaming "LOL I AM TEH PHILOSOPHY LOL AXIOM OF CHOICE BITCHES!!!!!!111" need to gb2 18th century because Immanuel Kant has already been through this. I think Descartes and probably some Chinese and Greeks already have aswell.